Sure. Here is how I see it.
First, we demonstrate that infinite regress is incoherent.
1. Infinite Regress is logically incoherent.
Infinite regress would mean that we have completely iterated, one-by-one, through every single item of an infinite series.
If we were to go backwards through each previous item, and there were an infinite number of past items, there would necessarily be some item in the set of previous items that we would never, ever get to. If that were not the case, it would not be infinite. (To put it another way, as we go backwards through the infinite items, there would always be something beyond us. If there is always something beyond us, there is something that is always beyond us.) If there is some supposed prior item in the set of previous items that we could never get to while iterating backwards through all previous items, then, iterating forward from that item to the current item, we would never arrive at the current item for the same reason that going backwards we could never arrive at the earlier item -- namely, the infinite (or unending) number of items in between the two.
To suggest infinite regress is to suggest that the infinite is not infinite, which is logically incoherent.
2. Past time had a beginning
This follows from the impossibility of infinite regress.
3. Temporality is neither permanent nor eternal
This follows from the above.
4. Temporality is caused
If temporality began uncaused, then having nothing, doing nothing to it, something resulted. This is the same as saying 0 + 0 > 0. I call this "Atheist Math". To suggest that 0 + 0 > 0 is to claim that 0 is not 0, which is logically incoherent.
5. The ultimate cause of temporality is an eternal, personal entity
If the cause were inherently temporal rather than eternal, temporality would be a necessary precondition for its existence. It, however, as the ultimate cause of temporality, is a necessary precondition for temporality. If each were a necessary precondition of the other, we would have an infinite regress of necessary preconditions in a circular fashion, which is logically incoherent. Thus, the First Cause is eternal.
Being the ultimate First Cause, it was not forced by a prior cause to cause, rather, it caused on its own. If it caused necessarily (simply because it is), then the results would be co-eternal with it, and they aren't (see item 3 above). Therefore it caused volitionally, or optionally, making it volitional or willful and thus personal.
As a side note, the First Cause does not have to be caused, because it (unlike temporality and temporal events) is necessarily eternal. This is different than saying it has existed for an infinite amount of time, rather, it is to say that it is permanent or timeless.
6. The ultimate first cause of every temporal event is an eternal person.
Everything that happens temporally has a previous cause, since 0 = 0 (see item 4 above). Temporal previous causes can only go back as far as temporality itself, then we must plead eternal causes. Because of the incoherence of infinite regress, there must be a First Cause, and (per item 5 above) it must be personal in addition to being eternal.
7. If there are multiple eternal personal uncaused First Causes, they are perfectly united as One God
If there were multiple personal eternal first causes, and they each had ontologically equivalent authority, and they ever disagreed, then whatever they disagreed upon would both be and not be at the same time and in the same way. This is logically incoherent. Thus, either only one of these persons is ontologically in ultimate authority and therefore there is only one ultimate God, or else all of these persons are in complete and eternal unity of mind, purpose, intent, desire, etc, such that they present a perfectly unified front and are therefore a single united GOD.
Thus, Atheism and polytheism are false because of the impossibility of the contrary.
Is the Bible True?